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Kristen M. Dugas's avatar

My personal belief is that Paul is quoting a faction of men from Corinth who wrote him in 1 Corinthians 11:4-6. I believe that it is a faction of men who want women to be veiled while praying or prophesying. The men are making a "literal" head argument saying:

4"Every man who has [anything] down over his head while praying or prophesying disgraces his [own] head. 5But every woman who has her head unveiled while praying or prophesying disgraces her [own] head, for it is one and the same thing as having been shaved. 6For if a woman is not veiled, let her also have her hair cut off; but if it is disgraceful for a woman to have her hair cut off or to be shaved, let her be veiled."

Because the men made a "literal" head argument, Paul gives his model (v.3) with the "figurative" meaning of "head/kephale" which means "source/origin/first/beginning."

Then, in verses 7-16, Paul gives his rebuttal where he refers back to his model. He starts off by saying, 7"For a man indeed ought not to veil his [figurative] head, since He [Christ] is the image and glory of God, but the woman is the glory of man." Here, Paul is using Jesus Christ as a correlation as to why women should not be veiled. "Hyparchon" (V-PPA-NMS) is not referring to "aner" (N-NMS) in verse 7; it is referring to "Christos" (N-NMS) in verse 3. Indeed, it is Jesus Christ (not man) who is the image and glory of God. (Please see 2 Cor. 4:4, Col. 1:15, John 1:14, Heb. 1:3, Phil. 2:5-6, Rev. 21:23 for confirmation of this.) Male and female are created IN the image of God, but only Jesus Christ IS the image of God because He is the Word made flesh. He is the [visible] image of the invisible God.

So, Paul is saying that just as a man ought not to veil his head, Christ, since He is the image and glory of God, so also the man ought not to veil the woman since she is his glory. Then, in verses 8-10, Paul goes on to give the reasons as to why a woman is a man's glory. Also, verses 13-15 should be translated as statements, not questions. Paul is continuing to refute their argument by saying:

13"Judge for yourselves that it is proper for a woman to pray to God unveiled. 14For not even nature itself teaches you that if a man has long hair, it is a dishonor to him, 15but if a woman has long hair, it is a glory to her because the long hair has been given [to us all] instead of a covering."

In verse 15, the pronoun "aute" (to her) is omitted by Papyrus 46, D, F, G, and also by the majority of later Greek manuscripts. Therefore, I do not believe it was original to Paul. Paul is saying that nature (which God has created) does not teach us that if a man has long hair, it is a dishonor to him. God had commanded that men such as Samson and Samuel have long hair. If God did not want men to have long hair, then He would have disallowed it through nature just as He had disallowed women from growing mustaches or beards through nature. Also, Paul is saying that nature does not teach us that if a woman has long hair, it is her glory (as many women have undesirable hair). God did not give long hair to men to shame them, nor did He give long hair to women for vain beauty purposes. He gave (the option of) long hair to both men and women for protection (as a covering) from weather extremes so that they do not have to wear an additional covering every time they step outside. Both men and women can grow their hair long if they wish or cut it short if they so choose.

Paul ends the debate by saying, 16"But if one is inclined to be contentious, we have no such practice [of requiring women to veil their heads], nor have the people of God." Anyway, this is just what I believe from my study of Scripture. Thank you for allowing me to share.

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